Abu Dhabi Prometric Exam Mock Test

Question 1:
A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which position is most effective in reducing pain?
A) Sitting upright leaning forward
B) Supine with knees flexed
C) Left lateral with a pillow under the abdomen
D) Prone with head elevated 15 degrees

Question 2:
A nurse is educating a mother about breastfeeding a newborn with phenylketonuria (PKU). Which statement by the mother indicates understanding?
A) “I can breastfeed without restriction.”
B) “Breast milk is contraindicated entirely.”
C) “I will combine breastfeeding with a special phenylalanine-free formula.”
D) “I will only pump and discard breast milk.”

Question 3:
A community health nurse is planning a fall prevention program for older adults. Which intervention is most effective to reduce falls at home?
A) Installing grab bars only in the bathroom
B) Multifactorial risk assessment with individualized interventions
C) Providing educational pamphlets on fall risks
D) Recommending all older adults use walking aids

Question 4:
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a 4‑year‑old child. Which site is most appropriate?
A) Dorsogluteal
B) Deltoid
C) Ventrogluteal
D) Vastus lateralis

Question 5:
A client with tuberculosis is being started on rifampin. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may cause:
A) Orange discoloration of body fluids
B) Blue‑green visual disturbances
C) Tinnitus
D) Hair loss

Question 6:
A nurse is assessing a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Calf tenderness on palpation
B) Unilateral swelling
C) Sudden onset of dyspnea and chest pain
D) Warmth over the affected area

Question 7:
While caring for a client with bipolar disorder in the manic phase, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A) Engage the client in competitive group activities
B) Provide detailed explanations about unit rules
C) Encourage the client to attend all group sessions
D) Offer high‑calorie finger foods frequently

Question 8:
A nurse is teaching a client with chronic kidney disease about dietary restrictions. Which food choice indicates the client needs further teaching?
A) Apple slices
B) Tomato soup
C) White rice
D) Green beans

Question 9:
A nurse discovers a fire in a client’s room. After removing the client, which action should the nurse take next?
A) Activate the fire alarm
B) Close all doors in the unit
C) Attempt to extinguish the fire with a fire blanket
D) Evacuate all clients on the floor

Question 10:
A newborn at 1 minute after birth has a heart rate of 140/min, strong cry, some flexion of extremities, grimaces when suctioned, and acrocyanosis. What is the Apgar score?
A) 6
B) 5
C) 7
D) 8

Question 11:
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously. Which technique is correct?
A) Aspirate after needle insertion
B) Inject without aspirating and do not massage the site
C) Massage the site after injection to promote absorption
D) Use Z‑track method

Question 12:
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations telling him to harm himself. Which nursing response is best?
A) “Those voices aren’t real, ignore them.”
B) “Why would you want to hurt yourself?”
C) “You know the voices are not real, don’t you?”
D) “I understand the voices are frightening, and I will stay with you.”

Question 13:
A nurse is caring for a client with hypoparathyroidism. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hyponatremia

Question 14:
During a home visit, a nurse finds an elderly client with bruises on the arms who appears fearful. The client says, “I fell.” What is the nurse’s priority?
A) Document the client’s statement and notify the physician
B) Confront the family caregiver about suspected abuse
C) Interview the client alone in a private setting
D) Report the incident to police immediately

Question 15:
A client with acute asthma exacerbation is using accessory muscles and has absent breath sounds in the right lower lobe. Which intervention should the nurse perform first?
A) Obtain arterial blood gases
B) Administer nebulized short‑acting bronchodilator
C) Initiate chest physiotherapy
D) Insert a chest tube

Question 16:
A nurse is supervising a UAP providing oral hygiene to an unconscious client. Which action by the UAP requires intervention?
A) Using a soft toothbrush with minimal water
B) Positioning client in side‑lying position
C) Suctioning excess secretions
D) Placing toothpaste on a sponge swab and leaving the client supine

Question 17:
A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. The TPN solution runs out before the next bag is ready. What should the nurse hang?
A) 10% dextrose in water
B) Normal saline
C) Lactated Ringer’s solution
D) 0.45% sodium chloride

Question 18:
A nurse is teaching a client about preventing recurrent urinary tract infections. Which recommendation is most appropriate?
A) Drink cranberry juice with high sugar content
B) Void immediately before sexual intercourse
C) Wipe from front to back after voiding
D) Take bubble baths regularly

Question 19:
A client with deep partial‑thickness burns to both legs is in the emergent phase. Which finding indicates fluid resuscitation is adequate?
A) Blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg
B) Heart rate 100 bpm
C) Urine output 15 mL/hr
D) Urine output 40 mL/hr

Question 20:
A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post‑op after thyroidectomy. The client reports tingling around the mouth and fingers. The nurse should first check:
A) Blood glucose
B) Chvostek’s sign
C) Pupil reactivity
D) Kernig’s sign

Question 21:
Which action by a nurse breaches client confidentiality?
A) Discussing a client’s diagnosis with a relative who calls without the client’s permission
B) Reporting a suspected case of tuberculosis to public health authorities
C) Documenting the client’s condition in the electronic record accessible only to the healthcare team
D) Informing the charge nurse of a client’s critical lab result

Question 22:
A primigravida at 30 weeks gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding. Which condition is most likely?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Premature labor
D) Placenta previa

Question 23:
A nurse is teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about pursed‑lip breathing. What is the primary purpose?
A) To increase inspiratory volume
B) To decrease oxygen saturation
C) To prolong exhalation and reduce air trapping
D) To strengthen the diaphragm

Question 24:
A client who is 24 hours post‑operative from abdominal surgery has not voided. The nurse should first:
A) Insert an indwelling catheter
B) Assist the client to stand or use a bedside commode
C) Apply suprapubic pressure
D) Restrict oral fluids

Question 25:
A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which teaching is correct?
A) “You will drink a bowel cleansing solution the day before the procedure.”
B) “You may have milk products on the day of the procedure.”
C) “You will lie in a prone position during the procedure.”
D) “You can take your morning medications with a full glass of water without restrictions.”

Question 26:
A nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client with a head injury. Which finding indicates increasing intracranial pressure?
A) Tachycardia
B) Constricted pupils
C) Widening pulse pressure and bradycardia
D) Hypotension with narrowed pulse pressure

Question 27:
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with iron deficiency anemia. Which food has the highest iron content?
A) Milk
B) Egg whites
C) Whole wheat bread
D) Liver

Question 28:
The nurse is preparing to administer ophthalmic drops to a client with glaucoma. Which technique is correct?
A) Place drops directly on the cornea
B) Place drops into the lower conjunctival sac
C) Apply pressure to the inner canthus before instillation
D) Have the client blink rapidly after instillation

Question 29:
A client is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which finding is consistent?
A) Severe dehydration and blood glucose 800 mg/dL
B) Ketotic breath and pH 7.25
C) Rapid onset and history of type 1 diabetes
D) Kussmaul respirations

Question 30:
A nurse is educating a patient with a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which food choice indicates understanding?
A) Whole wheat toast
B) Barley soup
C) Rice crackers
D) Regular pasta

Question 31:
A nurse is caring for a child with suspected epiglottitis. Which action is contraindicated?
A) Allowing the child to sit upright
B) Inspecting the throat with a tongue depressor
C) Administering humidified oxygen
D) Preparing for emergency intubation

Question 32:
A client is receiving warfarin. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A) “I will use an electric razor for shaving.”
B) “I will report any unusual bleeding.”
C) “I will keep my dietary intake of vitamin K consistent.”
D) “I will take ibuprofen for my arthritis pain.”

Question 33:
A client asks about metformin therapy. Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A) “I will hold metformin 48 hours before and after a contrast procedure as instructed.”
B) “I can double the dose if I miss one.”
C) “Metformin commonly causes weight gain.”
D) “I need to check my urine ketones daily.”

Question 34:
A nurse is assessing a client with left‑sided heart failure. Which finding is most likely?
A) Peripheral edema
B) Bibasilar crackles
C) Jugular venous distention
D) Hepatomegaly

Question 35:
A client with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine. The nurse should prioritize monitoring for:
A) Urinary retention
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Tardive dyskinesia
D) Increased suicidal ideation in the first weeks

Question 36:
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water seal drainage system. During transport, the tube accidentally disconnects from the drainage unit. What should the nurse do immediately?
A) Clamp the chest tube
B) Reconnect to a new sterile drainage unit
C) Submerge the end of the tube in sterile water
D) Cover the insertion site with petroleum gauze

Question 37:
A nurse is teaching a client about preventing Lyme disease. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A) “I will wear light‑colored clothing and check for ticks after being outdoors.”
B) “I can remove a tick by squeezing its body with tweezers.”
C) “A vaccine is available to prevent Lyme disease.”
D) “I should apply insect repellent only to exposed skin.”

Question 38:
A nurse is providing care to a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder who is hyperactive and intrusive. Which meal selection is best?
A) Soup and salad
B) Finger foods like sandwiches and fruit
C) Large heavy meal
D) Hot tea and cereal

Question 39:
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?
A) Dry cough
B) Dizziness
C) Swelling of the lips and tongue
D) Fatigue

Question 40:
A nurse is assessing a client with suspected compartment syndrome after a cast application. Which symptom is the earliest indicator?
A) Pulselessness
B) Paresthesia
C) Paralysis
D) Pain unrelieved by opioids and out of proportion

Question 41:
A nurse is performing a well‑child assessment on a 2‑year‑old. Which finding would require further evaluation?
A) The child does not have a pincer grasp
B) The child walks with a wide‑based gait
C) The child speaks in three‑word sentences
D) The child helps with dressing

Question 42:
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client. Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A) Blood pressure 140/80 mm Hg
B) Digoxin level 1.8 ng/mL
C) Heart rate 56 beats per minute
D) Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L

Question 43:
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. Which adverse effect requires priority monitoring?
A) Orthostatic hypotension
B) Significant weight gain and elevated blood glucose
C) Akathisia
D) Dry mouth

Question 44:
A nurse is caring for a client 8 hours post‑op after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) with continuous bladder irrigation. The nurse notes bright red urine with large clots. What action should the nurse take first?
A) Slow the irrigation rate
B) Remove the catheter
C) Milk the catheter tubing
D) Increase irrigation flow rate and notify the surgeon

Question 45:
During a prenatal visit, a client at 36 weeks gestation asks about signs of true labor. Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A) “True labor contractions increase with walking and are regular.”
B) “True labor pain is felt only in the lower back.”
C) “True labor contractions are relieved by changing position.”
D) “True labor is characterized by irregular, mild contractions.”

Question 46:
A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which serum electrolyte imbalance is most likely?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypernatremia

Question 47:
A nurse is teaching a client with recurrent herpes simplex virus type 2 about prevention of outbreaks. Which statement should be included?
A) “Antiviral medication can cure the infection.”
B) “Stress does not trigger outbreaks.”
C) “You can discontinue medication when lesions disappear.”
D) “Consistent use of suppressive antiviral therapy can reduce frequency.”

Question 48:
A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops flushing, pruritus, and a temperature of 38.2°C. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Slow the transfusion rate
B) Stop the transfusion and maintain IV line with normal saline
C) Administer antihistamine as prescribed
D) Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes

Question 49:
Which assessment finding in a client with chronic venous insufficiency is most characteristic?
A) Brownish discoloration of the lower legs
B) Pale, cool feet with diminished pulses
C) Intermittent claudication
D) Absent hair on toes

Question 50:
A nurse is teaching a client about newly prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction is essential?
A) “Take the medication with antacids to reduce GI upset.”
B) “Discontinue the drug if skin rash develops.”
C) “Maintain good oral hygiene and visit the dentist regularly.”
D) “Avoid foods high in vitamin K.”

Question 51:
A nurse is caring for a client with a history of anaphylaxis to latex. Which item is safe to use?
A) Latex gloves
B) Silicone Foley catheter
C) Rubber tourniquet
D) Adhesive bandages with latex

Question 52:
A client is admitted with suspected bacterial meningitis. What type of isolation precautions should the nurse implement?
A) Contact precautions
B) Standard precautions
C) Airborne precautions
D) Droplet precautions

Question 53:
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client after cataract surgery. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A) “I will sleep on the operated side to promote drainage.”
B) “I will avoid bending at the waist.”
C) “I will use a protective eye shield at night.”
D) “I should report sudden pain or vision changes.”

Question 54:
A nurse is caring for a client 1 day post‑op open cholecystectomy with a T‑tube in place. The drainage is dark greenish‑brown. What action should the nurse take?
A) Clamp the tube
B) Document the finding as expected
C) Irrigate the tube with sterile saline
D) Notify the surgeon immediately

Question 55:
A client with cirrhosis is at risk for hepatic encephalopathy. Which diet should the nurse recommend?
A) High‑protein diet
B) Low‑calorie diet
C) Moderate protein intake, preferably from vegetable sources
D) High‑sodium diet

Question 56:
A nurse is performing a developmental screening on a 9‑month‑old infant. Which gross motor skill should the infant demonstrate?
A) Walks independently
B) Creeps on hands and knees
C) Pulls to stand
D) Sits well without support

Question 57:
A client with peptic ulcer disease is positive for H. pylori. Which combination therapy is expected?
A) Proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, clarithromycin
B) Proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, ciprofloxacin
C) Sucralfate alone
D) H2 receptor antagonist and antacids only

Question 58:
A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The fundus is firm, midline, at the umbilicus. Lochia is rubra with small clots. What is the nurse’s next action?
A) Massage the fundus
B) Document the findings as normal
C) Notify the provider
D) Prepare for fundal massage and oxytocin

Question 59:
A nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism experiencing thyroid storm. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate first?
A) Administering levothyroxine
B) Applying cooling blanket and giving antipyretics
C) Administering beta‑blockers and antithyroid medications
D) Restricting fluids

Question 60:
A nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
A) “I will wear sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors.”
B) “I should schedule rest periods throughout the day.”
C) “I will take ibuprofen for joint pain as prescribed.”
D) “I can stop prednisone abruptly if I feel better.”

Question 61:
A nurse is caring for a client with acute angle‑closure glaucoma. Which symptom is most characteristic?
A) Sudden severe eye pain with blurred vision and halos around lights
B) Gradual loss of peripheral vision
C) Itchy eyes and watery discharge
D) Floaters and flashing lights

Question 62:
A client is post‑op day 2 after an above‑knee amputation. How should the nurse position the residual limb?
A) Flexed at the hip with a pillow under the stump
B) Elevated on a pillow at all times
C) In extension with no elevation after the first 24–48 hours
D) In a dependent position

Question 63:
A nurse is caring for a client with cellulitis of the right lower leg. Which assessment finding indicates that the infection is resolving?
A) Increased purulent drainage
B) Borders of erythema are less distinct and the area is less warm
C) Development of bullae
D) Temperature 39°C

Question 64:
A client diagnosed with panic disorder states, “I feel like I’m dying, my heart is racing.” What is the nurse’s best initial response?
A) “You are having a heart attack; I will get help.”
B) “There is nothing wrong with your heart, calm down.”
C) “You need to learn to control your breathing.”
D) “You are safe here; I will stay with you and help you breathe slowly.”

Question 65:
A nurse is teaching a client about levothyroxine therapy for hypothyroidism. Which instruction is most important?
A) “Take the medication on an empty stomach in the morning.”
B) “Take the medication with milk to enhance absorption.”
C) “You may discontinue the drug when symptoms improve.”
D) “Take an extra dose if you miss one.”

Question 66:
Which intervention reduces the risk of ventilator‑associated pneumonia (VAP)?
A) Performing oral care with chlorhexidine every 12 hours
B) Suctioning on a regular schedule
C) Elevating the head of the bed to 30–45 degrees
D) Administering prophylactic antibiotics

Question 67:
A client with heart failure reports increased shortness of breath and weight gain of 2 kg in 2 days. The nurse notes crackles in lung bases. Which action is priority?
A) Encourage ambulation
B) Restrict fluid to 1 liter per day
C) Administer a bronchodilator
D) Assess vital signs, place in high Fowler’s, and notify the provider

Question 68:
A nurse is conducting a class on breast self‑examination. Which statement by a participant indicates correct understanding?
A) “I should perform BSE during my menstrual period.”
B) “I should use the pads of my fingers in a circular motion covering the entire breast.”
C) “I only need to examine the nipple area.”
D) “A lump that moves easily is always benign.”

Question 69:
A nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which laboratory result is most indicative of the condition?
A) Urine positive for ketones
B) Elevated serum hemoglobin
C) Decreased hematocrit
D) Hyperglycemia

Question 70:
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client after total hip arthroplasty. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A) “I will sit in a low soft chair.”
B) “I will cross my legs when sitting.”
C) “I will use a raised toilet seat and an abduction pillow.”
D) “I can bend forward to tie my shoes.”

Question 71:
A nurse is assessing a client 12 hours post‑percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via femoral approach. Which finding requires immediate action?
A) Mild bruising at the access site
B) New onset of back pain and hypotension
C) Trace oozing of blood at the site
D) Client reports mild groin discomfort

Question 72:
A client with chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The nurse suspects Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Which vitamin should be administered first?
A) Folic acid
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin C
D) Thiamine

Question 73:
A nurse is teaching a client with esophageal varices about prevention of bleeding. Which statement is correct?
A) “Avoid heavy lifting and straining.”
B) “Eat hard, crunchy foods to strengthen the esophagus.”
C) “Take aspirin for pain relief.”
D) “Lie flat after meals.”

Question 74:
A child is admitted with suspected Kawasaki disease. The nurse monitors for which serious complication?
A) Renal failure
B) Meningitis
C) Coronary artery aneurysms
D) Liver cirrhosis

Question 75:
A nurse is planning care for a client with Parkinson’s disease. Which intervention should be included to prevent complications?
A) Encourage rapid movement to improve gait
B) Provide a diet high in fiber and adequate fluids
C) Limit physical activity to avoid fatigue
D) Administer levodopa with high‑protein meals

Question 76:
A client is in the postictal phase after a generalized tonic‑clonic seizure. The nurse should place the client in which position?
A) Supine with head elevated
B) Prone
C) High Fowler’s
D) Side‑lying

Question 77:
A nurse is teaching a client with acute diverticulitis about diet progression. Which advice is correct?
A) “Initially, you will be on a clear liquid diet; then progress to a low‑fiber diet during the acute phase.”
B) “You should increase fiber intake immediately.”
C) “Avoid all oral intake for 2 weeks.”
D) “Start with a high‑residue diet.”

Question 78:
A nurse is evaluating a client with major burns. Which finding indicates an inhalation injury?
A) Blistering of the face
B) Singed nasal hairs and hoarseness
C) Pain at burn site
D) Hypertension

Question 79:
A nurse is counseling a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) with diarrhea. Which dietary modification is most appropriate?
A) Increase dietary fiber with bran cereal
B) Increase intake of caffeinated beverages
C) Avoid foods containing sorbitol and fructose
D) Eat large meals to decrease frequency

Question 80:
A client has returned from cardiac catheterization via the radial artery. Which observation requires immediate action?
A) Capillary refill of 3 seconds
B) Small hematoma at the site
C) Mild numbness in the hand
D) Absent radial pulse with a cool, pale hand

Question 81:
A nurse is teaching parents about preventing sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which recommendation is most important?
A) Place the infant on the back to sleep
B) Use a soft mattress with pillows
C) Keep the room temperature warm
D) Use blankets to cover the infant’s head

Question 82:
A nurse is assessing a client with myasthenia gravis. Which finding is most characteristic?
A) Spastic gait
B) Ptosis and diplopia that worsen with activity
C) Resting tremor
D) Hyperreflexia

Question 83:
A nurse is caring for a client on mechanical ventilation. The high‑pressure alarm sounds. What should the nurse do first?
A) Suction the airway
B) Check for kinks in the circuit
C) Assess the client and the ventilator system
D) Call respiratory therapy

Question 84:
A nurse is providing teaching on oral contraceptives. Which client statement indicates a need for immediate medical evaluation?
A) “I have some breakthrough bleeding.”
B) “I gained 2 kg in one month.”
C) “I have mild nausea in the morning.”
D) “I have severe headache and blurred vision.”

Question 85:
A client is admitted with acute pyelonephritis. Which intervention is the priority?
A) Administer prescribed intravenous antibiotics after obtaining cultures
B) Encourage increased oral fluid intake
C) Apply heat to the flank area
D) Collect urine for culture and sensitivity only

Question 86:
A nurse is caring for a client admitted with Guillain‑Barré syndrome. Which finding is most concerning?
A) Paresthesias in the lower extremities
B) Decreased deep tendon reflexes
C) Increasing respiratory difficulty and dropping vital capacity
D) Ascending weakness

Question 87:
A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube for decompression. To maintain patency, the nurse should:
A) Flush with 30 mL of sterile water every 8 hours
B) Irrigate with normal saline as prescribed and check suction
C) Clamp the tube for 2 hours before flushing
D) Use cola to unclog the tube

Question 88:
A client with liver failure is at risk for bleeding. Which laboratory value most directly indicates impaired clotting?
A) Decreased albumin
B) Increased AST and ALT
C) Decreased bilirubin
D) Prolonged prothrombin time (PT/INR)

Question 89:
A nurse is assessing a client with Addison’s disease. Which finding is expected?
A) Hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes
B) Moon face and truncal obesity
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Elevated blood pressure

Question 90:
A nurse is providing home care instructions for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which statement by the client indicates proper understanding?
A) “I will clean the stoma with alcohol.”
B) “I can go swimming without a cover.”
C) “I will use a shower shield and avoid water entering the tracheostomy.”
D) “I will remove the entire tube for cleaning daily.”

Question 91:
A client with depression is prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). What dietary teaching is essential?
A) “Take the medication with grapefruit juice.”
B) “Eat a high‑fiber diet.”
C) “Increase intake of dairy products.”
D) “Avoid aged cheeses, cured meats, and red wine.”

Question 92:
A nurse is preparing to administer an enema to an adult client. Which position is appropriate?
A) Supine
B) Left lateral with right knee flexed (Sims’)
C) Prone with head elevated
D) Right lateral

Question 93:
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What instruction should the nurse include?
A) “Report any signs of infection or mouth sores immediately.”
B) “Take the medication on an empty stomach.”
C) “You can receive live vaccines while on this drug.”
D) “Stop the medication if you feel better.”

Question 94:
A nurse is caring for a client with a Jackson‑Pratt drain that is full and needs emptying. Which technique is correct?
A) Empty only when completely full
B) Compress the bulb while the cap is closed, then clean the plug and recap
C) Remove the plug, empty contents, compress bulb, and recap to re‑establish suction
D) Leave the bulb compressed and attach to wall suction

Question 95:
A nurse is teaching a client with chronic pancreatitis about pancreatic enzyme supplements. When should the client take them?
A) On an empty stomach
B) With meals and snacks
C) At bedtime
D) One hour after eating

Question 96:
A nurse is assessing a client with acute appendicitis. Where is the pain typically located?
A) Left upper quadrant
B) Right upper quadrant
C) Epigastric area radiating to the back
D) Initially periumbilical, then localizing to right lower quadrant at McBurney’s point

Question 97:
A client is 12 weeks pregnant and asks about safe exercises. Which recommendation is appropriate?
A) “Walking and swimming are safe and beneficial.”
B) “Avoid all exercise during the first trimester.”
C) “Scuba diving is safe during early pregnancy.”
D) “High‑impact aerobics are recommended.”

Question 98:
A nurse is teaching a client with chronic atrial fibrillation about warfarin therapy. Which lab test monitors the therapeutic effect?
A) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
B) Platelet count
C) International normalized ratio (INR)
D) Bleeding time

Question 99:
A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse anticipate during treatment?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypermagnesemia
D) Hypernatremia

Question 100:
A nurse is caring for a client immediately after electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). What is the priority assessment?
A) Deep tendon reflexes
B) Urine output
C) Bowel sounds
D) Airway and respiratory status